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Medical Tests American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder Sample Questions (Q124-Q129):

NEW QUESTION # 124
Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm?

A. It is a collection of organs held together by connective tissue.
B. It performs an important function in blood flow.
C. It separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
D. It forms tendons, ligaments, cartilage, and fat.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity by means of skeletal muscle. When the diaphragm contracts, air is drawn into the lungs. It therefore plays a key role in respiration. The mediastinum is surrounded by loose connective tissue and contains several anatomical structures including the heart. Connective tissue is distributed throughout the body to form tendons, ligaments, cartilage, and fat.

NEW QUESTION # 125
What is NOT a function of the kidneys?

A. Remove waste
B. Regulate blood pressure
C. Filter blood
D. Propel urine

Answer: D

Explanation:
The role ofthe kidneys is to filter blood before it is transported back to the heart, remove waste materials from food and medication, and regulate blood pressure by excreting excess sodium.
The ureters propel urine from the kidneys into the bladder.

NEW QUESTION # 126
A 79-year-old female patient is admitted to a skilled nursing facility for continued monitoring as she completes her course of antibiotics for bronchitis. Upon admission, a nurse practitioner spends 20 minutes with the patient, performing an evaluation of recovery and rebuilding of stamin a. On day 3, the patient's physician completes an initial comprehensive assessment and determines the patient is recovering well on her current dosage of antibiotics. What CPT code should be reported on day 3?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
CPT defines an initial nursing facility service (NFS) as "the first encounter with the patient by the admitting physician to nursing facilities." Although the patient can be evaluated and treated by other medical staff in the meantime, only the physician responsible for the admission may report the initial comprehensive visit (99304-99306). If other medical personnel do provide treatment, those visits would be reported using the subsequent nursing facility care encounter codes (99307-
99310). Nursing facility care services require a medically appropriate history and/or examination, and a review of medical decision making. In this scenario, the number and complexity of problems addressed at the encounter is low (one stable, acute illness), the amount and/or complexity of data reviewed or analyzed is straightforward (minimal or none), and the risk of complications and/or morbidity or mortality of patient management is moderate (prescription drug management). After considering that the patient is established, the level of complexity for the visit is considered low and the encounter should be reported with CPT code 99304.

NEW QUESTION # 127
Which condition would describe a patient with a physical status modifier of P3?

A. Multiple organ dysfunction
B. Poorly controlled diabetes
C. A recent myocardial infarction
D. Sepsis

Answer: B

Explanation:
The physical status modifiers are used to identify different levels of complexity associated with the patient's condition. Additionally, they provide information surrounding the circumstances of the anesthesia service and are a useful tool to support medical necessity. Modifier P3 describes a patient with a severe systemic disease, such as uncontrolled diabetes and/or hypertension.
Multiple organ dysfunction is reported with modifier P5, which describes a patient who is not expected to survive without an operation. A recent myocardial infarction and sepsis both describe a severe systemic disease that is a threat to life and is reported with modifier P4.

NEW QUESTION # 128
A patient develops an infection within the global period of a knee replacement. It is determined that the infection originated from the incision site and needs to be surgically removed. Which modifier should be appended to the secondary surgery?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
Modifier 78 represents an additional, unplanned surgery during the global period for a complication arising for the initial procedure. In this case, the complication would be the infection.
Modifier 58 is generally used when a secondary procedure is planned prior to or during the time of the initial procedure. Modifier 79 is used to indicate two unrelated procedures. Modifier 25 is for use on E/M codes only.

NEW QUESTION # 129
......

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